ENGLISH LANGUAGE TEST
Idioms and Phrases - Objective Question
(For Bank PO,Bank Clerk, MBA, CAT, SSC, LIC, NDA, CDS, B Ed, etc. )
Idioms are Phrases are an important part of the English
Language test in almost all Entrance Exams like Bank PO,Bank Clerk, MBA,
CAT, SSC, LIC, NDA, CDS, B Ed, etc. Idioms and phrases are similar to
"muhavare" that we have in Hindi.
Directions:
In each of the following questions part of sentence is in bold. Four
alternative meanings of the highlited part of the sentence are given below the
sentence. Mark as your answer that alternative meaning which you think is
correct. If none of the first four is correct, mark (5) i.e. none of these as
your answer.
1. In the last few years India has advanced by leaps
and bounds in the industrial sector.
1. Very rapidly
2. Very competently
3. Very slowly
4. Very pathetically
5. None of these
2. The authorities turned a deaf ear to the
demands of the employees.
1. Immediately implemented
2. Agreed to listen to
3. Misrepresented
4. Whole-heartedly agreed to
5. None of these
3. He was in doldrums after the quarrel he
had with his brother.
1. He was jubilant
2. He was in low spirits
3. He was in a financial difficulty
4. He left the house
5. None of these
4. If you pass this difficult examination it will be
a feather in you cap
1. Your parents will be very happy
2. You will get a scholarship for higher studies
3. You will feel proud of it
4. You will get a very good job
5. None of these
5. Tell me plainly who broke the mirror, do not beat
about the bush.
1. Pretend to be unaware of the matter
2. Try to impress me with your arguments
3. Put any blame on others
4. Approach the matter in a round about way
5. None of these
6. Some people have a habit of wearing their heart
on their sleeve.
1. saying something which is not to be taken seriously
2. exposing their innermost feelings to others
3. avoiding being friendly with others
4. always trying to gain advantage over others
5. wasting their time on unnecessary details
7. I raked my brains to solve this difficult problem.
1. I read number of books
2. I consulted several people
3. I used my commonsense
4. I subjected my mind to hard thinking
5. I brainwashed several experts
8. He was a king who ruled his subjects with a high
hand.
1. sympathetically
2. kindly
3. democratically
4. conveniently
5. oppressively
9. It is a matter of gratification for me that he has turned
a new leaf.
1. begun a different mode of life
2. proved to be a worthy person on his job
3. decided to use a different strategy to solve the problem
4. accepted the new job that was offered to him
5. started using his intelligence
10. He is a plain, simple and sincere man, he will always call
a spade a spade.
1. be outspoken
2. help needy person
3. stand by his friends and relatives
4. sacrifice his life for others
5. put up a simple dress
11. It was such a strange affair that I could not make
head or tail of it.
1. tolerate it
2. face it
3. remember it
4. believe it
5. understand it
12. He is temporarily in charge of the company and is trying
to feather his nest.
1. bring order and discipline in the company
2. raise the image of the company
3. act for his own future benefits
4. diversify the product of the company
5. practice his own brand of management philosophy
13. Those who make no bones about such
actions face a tough oppostion.
1. do without hesitation
2. make no plan
3. waste no time
4. invite no comments
5. None of these
14. Mrs B is known as a shoplifter in a
Mumbai commercial center.
1. smuggler
2. a thief in the guise of a customer
3. buyer of all new things
4. daily visitor
5. None of these
15. The people in north India are known for keeping
open house.
1. never locking it
2. not worrying about its security
3. offering hospitality to everyone
4. keeping it well ventilated
5. None of these
Directions (Q 16-20):
In each of the following questions an idiomatic expression and its four possible
meaning are given. Find out the correct meaning of the idiomatic expression and
mark the number of that meanings as your answer on the answer sheet. If you do
not find any correct answer, mark ‘5′, i.e. none of these as your
answer.
16. To make clean breast of
1. to gain prominence
2. to praise oneself
3. to confess without reserve
4. to destroy before it blooms
5. None of these
17. To end in smoke
1. to make completely understand
2. to ruin oneself
3. to excite great applause
4. to overcome some one
5. None of these
18. To leave someone in the lurch.
1. to come to compromise with someone
2. constant source of annoyance to someone
3. to put someone at ease
4. to desert someone in his difficulties
5. None of these
19. To cry wolf
1. to listen eagerly
2. to give false alarm
3. to turn pale
4. to keep off starvation
5. None of these
20. A man of straw
1. a man of no substance
2. a very active person
3. a worthy fellow
4. an unreasonable person
5. None of these
ANSWERS
1. (1) 2. (5) 3. (2) 4. (3) 5. (4)
6. (2) 7. (4) 8. (5) 9. (1) 10. (1)
11. (5) 12. (3) 13. (3) 14. (2) 15. (3)
16. (3) 17. (2) 18. (4) 19. (2) 20. (1)
Reasoning Ability Test For Forthcomming Exam Bank PO, Bank Clerk, MBA, CAT
Reasoning Ability Test For Forthcomming Exam
[Bank PO, Bank Clerk, MBA, CAT]
1. ‘Captain’ is related to a ‘Team’ in the same way as ‘Director’ is related to
(1) Supervisor
(2) Employee
(3) Organisation
(4) Union
(5) Customer
2. Find the odd one out of the following options
(1) Aunt
(2) Child
(3) Father
(4) Niece
(5) Relation
3. Pointing to a photograph of Mahendra , Rajesh said. "The father of his sister is the husband of my wife’s mother". How is Rajesh related to Maheendra?
(1) Brother
(2) Brother-in-law
(3) Father-in-law
(4) Data not sufficient
(5) None of these
4. If ‘fork’ is called ‘plate’, ‘plate’ is called ‘knife’, ‘knife’ is called ‘jug’, ‘jug’ is called ‘glass’, ‘glass’ is called ‘cup’ and ‘cup’ is called ‘fork’, by what do we cut fruit?
(1) spoon
(2) jug
(3) glass
(4) saucer
(5) none of these
5. If ‘a’ is substituted by 26,’B’ by 25 and so on up to ‘Z’ which is substituted by 1, what will be the sum of the numbers substituted for the word ‘XRAY’?
(1) 33
(2) 40
(3) 37
(4) 73
(5) None of these
6. In a certain code COIMBATORE is written as DPJNCBUPSF. How is INDORE written in that code?
(1) JOENQF
(2) JMCPQD
(3) JOEPSF
(4) HMCNQD
(5) None of these
7. Gautami is elder to Seema but not to Deepika. Gitika is younger than Deepika. No one is elder to Binita. Who is youngest of them all?
(1) Seema
(2) Gautami
(3) Gitika
(4) Data not sufficient
(5) None of these
8. Raman is sitting to the immediate left of Harry but not next to Kamal. Mahesh is sitting to the right of Kamal. If the four friends are sitting in a circle who is sitting to the immediate right of Harry?
(1) Mahesh
(2) Kamal
(3) Raman
(4) Harry
(5) Cannot be determined
9. How many three letter meaningful English words can be formed from the word NOTE beginning with ‘T’ and without repeating any letter?
(1) Three
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) None
(5) None of these
Directions (11-15): Answer question 11 to 15 based on the following sequence:
A $ B # 9 G 3D K « M ? C Q 2 X 7 P 5 U 8 I 4 Y É™ J11. How many elements in the above arrangement are both immediately preceded and immediately followed by a number?
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Five
(5) None of these
12. Which of the following will be the fifteenth element from the left end if all the numbers are arranged in descending order from left to right, keeping the position of the other elements in arrangement un-changed?
(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 7
(4) 8
(5) None of these
13. How many letters in the above arrangement are immediately followed by a symbol?
(1) Two
(2) Five
(3) Four
(4) Three
(5) None of these
14. Which of the following will be eighth to the left of the twelfth from the left end of the arrangement?
(1) #
(2) 7
(3) U
(4) 9
(5) None of these
15. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on their position in the above arrangement and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(1) G$M
(2) K9Q
(3) ?D7
(4) 2MU
(5) PCI
16. In a certain code language’ In ba pe’ means ‘he has won’,'le ki ba’ means ‘she has lost’ and ‘in se pe’ means ‘he always won’. Which word in that language means ‘he’?
(1) in
(2) pe
(3) se
(4) Data not sufficient
(5) None of these
17. X is Y’s brother. S is T’s mother and X’s aunt. How is T related to X?
(1) Sister
(2) Cousin
(3) Aunt
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
18. If the letters of the word OBSERVANT are interchanged, such that the first becomes ninth, second becomes eighth, and so on, and the position of the fifth letter remains unchanged then what will be the new arrangement of letters?
(1) TNAVERSBO
(2) TNVARESBO
(3) NTAVERSBO
(4) VANTRESBO
(5) None of these
19. If 1 is coded as Åš, 5 is coded as %, 6 is coded as «, 3 is coded as +, 7 is coded as # and 4 is coded as ? What will be the correct form of the number 435671?
(1) ? + % « # Åš
(2) ? + % Åš # «
(3) ? + « % # Åš
(4) Åš # « % + ?
(5) None of these
20. Which of the following have the same relationship as BREAD:DBARE?
(1) SWORN: NSOWR
(2) FUNDS: FSDUN
(3) GLAZE : EGZAL
(4) LOWER: RLEWO
(5) None of these
Directions (21-25): Read the following information and attempt the given questions:
Six executive Aman, Bindu, Deepa, Jitu, Kamal and Priyanka have to advertise four products i.e. soap, watches, computers and chocolates on 3 different channels, i.e. Go, Come and Fun either alone or in pairs. An executive can visit only one channel and advertise only one product. No more than two executives can advertise on a channel.
(i) Bindu and Jitu both visit the same channel but advertise different products.
(ii) Aman who visits ‘Go’ advertises neither soap nor computers.
(iii) Kamal does not advertise chocolates.
(iv) No girl advertises soap.
(v) The two executives who advertise chocolates visit Spice
21. Who advertises watches?
(1) Deepa
(2) Kamal
(3) Aman
(4) Priyanka
(5) None of these
22. Which of the following Channel-product pairs in definitely incorrect?
(1) Go-watch
(2) Come-computer
(3) Go-soap
(4) Come-soap
(5) Come-watch
23. Which channel does Kamal visit?
(1) Go
(2) Fun
(3) Come
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
24. If Bipasha advertises computers which of the following must be true?
(1) Jitu advertises soap
(2) Jitu advertises watches
(3) Kamal advertises computers
(4) Kamal works for Fun
(5) None of these
25. What will Jitu advertise?
(1) Chocolates
(2) Watches
(3) Computers or watches
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
26. Swaroop and Simple want to attend a seminar together between 9 a.m. to 5 p.m. on Friday. Simple cannot leave till after her lunch break which begins at 1.30 p.m. Swaroop is free after her meeting which ends at noon. For how many hours can the two of them attend the seminar?
(1) 3 ½ hours
(2) 2 ½ hours
(3) 4 ½ hours
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
27. How many pairs of letters are there in the word ANSWER each of which has as many letters between them in the word as there are in the English language?
(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Four
(4) Three
(5) None of these
28. Find the odd one out
(1) 2
(2) 7
(3) 11
(4) 13
(5) 9
29. If all the letters in the word MERCIFUL are rearranged in alphabetical order and substituted by the alphabet preceding them in the English alphabet what will be the new arrangement of letters?
(1) BDHEKLQT (2) BDEHKLQT
(3) BDEHLKQT
(4) BDEJMLQT
(5) None of these
30. Out of 38 families in a housing society 5 subscribe to Hindi news-papers alone, 12 subscribe to both Hindi and Marathi newspapers. Find the
number of Maranthi news-paper subscribers.
(1) 9
(2) 21
(3) 17
(4) Cannot be determined
(5) None of these
Directions (31-35): Below are given letters and their numeric codes. Below that are given some conditions to be followed while codifying the given letter groups in each question. Study them and find out the correct numeric coded form of the given letter group in each question. If none of the coded forms is correct, your answer will be (5) i.e. ‘None of these’.
Letters
M Q I N E Y U G R
Numeric Codes
2 5 3 7 1 8 4 6 9
Conditions:
(i) If the first and last letters are vowels both are to be coded as Åš.
(ii) If the second letter is a vowel and the third letter is a consonant a single code is to be used and both are to be coded jointly as %.
(iii) If the first letter is a consonant and the last letter is a vowel both are to be coded as?
31. ENIMY
(1) 1%28
(2) ?732?
(3) 17328
(4) ?7328
(5) None of these
32. GENIR
(1) ?173?
(2) 6%39
(3) 6%79
(4) 61739
(5) None of these
33. QUERI
(1) 5%93
(2) ?413?
(3) ?4139
(4) ?419?
(5) None of these
34. EINUM
(1) 1%72
(2) 0%42
(3) 1374?
(4) 1%43
(5) None of these
35. UNGRE
(1) Åš769 Åš
(2) 4769 Åš
(3) 47691
(4) Åš7691
(5) None of these
Directions (36-40): In each question below are two statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows.
Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows.
Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or II follows.
Give answer (4) if neither conclusion I nor II follows.
Give answer (5) if both conclusions I or II follow.
36. Statements: Some pencils are lead. All lead are ink
Conclusions:
I. Some ink are pencils.
II. All ink are lead.
37. Statements: Some ovens are refrigerator. Some refrigerators are ACs.
Conclusions:
I. Some ACs are ovens.
II. No. AC is oven.
38. Statements: All planes are birds. All birds are clouds.
Conclusions:
I. Some planes are clouds.
II. Some clouds are birds.
39. Statements: Some sweets are salt. No salt in spice.
Conclusions:
I.. Some sweets are spice.
II. No spice is salt.
40. Statements: Some papers are plastics. All papers are clothes.
Conclusions:
I. Some plastics are clothes.
II. Some plastics are papers.
Directions (41-45): Each of the following questions below consists a question and two statements numbered I and II given below it. You have to decide if the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both statements and:
Give answer (1) if the data in statements I alone is sufficient to answer the question while the data in statement II is not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (2) if the data in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question, while the data in statement I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (3) if the data either in statement I alone or in statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (4) if the data in both the statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.
Give answer (5) if the data in both the statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.
41. How is ‘cricket’ written in a code language?
I. ‘Dinesh play cricket’ is written as ‘do si ha’.
II. ‘play cricket now’ is written as ‘ha si ma’.
42. Who is the oldest among L, M, N, O,P?
I. P is older than M and N but not O.
II. L is older than O.
43. When is Rahul’s birthday?
I. Rahul and Shivani are twins.
II. Rahul was born on the last day of February in a leap year.
44. What is the strength of the class?
I. Shekhar stood 28 ranks below the top ranker and Mahesh who stood 5 ranks below him stood last.
II. Jayesh was 9 ranks below Ramesh who stood 27th from the top.
45. How far does Shruti live from the school?
I. Shruti has to cycle 3 kms. To her friend Mina’s house which is 4 kms. From thee school.
II. Gitanjali lives exactly opposite the school and walks 2 kms. to reach Shruti’s house.
Directions (46-50): The following questions are based on the five three digit numbers given below:
972 526 487 359 251
46. If the positions of the firs and second digits are interchanged which of the following will be third if they are arranged in ascending order?
(1) 359
(2) 972
(3) 526
(4) 487
(5) 251
47. If 2 is added to the sum of the digits of each of the above numbers how many will be multiples of 5?
(1) None
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) Three
(5) None of these
48. If 1 is subtracted from the last digit of each of the above numbers the sum of the digits of how many of them are prime numbers?
(1) None
(2) Two
(3) One
(4) Three
(5) All five
49. If the digits in each of the above numbers are written in reverse order which will be the second highest number?
(1) 251
(2) 359
(3) 487
(4) 526
(5) 972
50. If the positions of the digits of each of the numbers are interchanged such that the first becomes second, second becomes third and third becomes firs, which, of the following will be the highest?
(1) 972
(2) 526
(3) 487
(4) 251
(5) 359
Answers
1. (3) 2. (5) 3. (2) 4. (2) 5. (2) 6. (3) 7. (4) 8. (2)
9. (1) 10. (1) 11. (4) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (1) 15. (5)
16. (4) 17. (2) 18. (5) 19. (1) 20. (5) 21. (3) 22. (4)
23. (1) 24. (2) 25. (3) 26. (1) 27. (2) 28. (5) 29. (2)
30. (5) 31. (3) 32. (2) 33. (4) 4. (5) 35. (1) 36. (1)
37. (3) 38. (5) 39. (2) 40. (5) 41. (4) 42. (5) 43. (2)
44. (1) 45. (3) 46. (1) 47. (4) 48. (3) 49. (3) 50. (5)
Mathematics Preparation Test Series [For :Bank PO, Bank Clerk, MBA, Staff Selection Commission, Railway Recruitment Board TC/CC/ASM/CA/TA , CAT
Mathematics Preparation Test Series
[For :Bank PO, Bank Clerk, MBA, Staff Selection Commission, Railway
Recruitment Board TC/CC/ASM/CA/TA , CAT , UPSC ETC Exam]
Average Ans : C Ans : D Ans : A Ans : A What is the average for all the three classes? Ans : B Ans : B Ans : C Ans : D Ans : C Ans : B Interest 1. A father left a will of Rs.35 lakhs between his two daughters aged 8.5 and 16 such that they may get equal amounts when each of them reach the age of 21 years. The original amount of Rs.35 lakhs has been instructed to be invested at 10% p.a. simple interest. How much did the elder daughter get at the time of the will? Ans : B Ans : B Ans : B Ans : B Ans : A Ans : D Ans : B Ans : A Ans : D Ans : C Geometry 1. Find the coordinates of the point which divides the line joining (5, -2) and (9, 6) internally in the ratio 1 : 3. Ans : A Ans : C Ans : A Ans : B Ans : C Ans : D Ans : C Ans : D Ans : B Ans : B
1. The average wages of a worker during a fortnight comprising 15 consecutive working days was Rs.90 per day. During the first 7 days, his average wages was Rs.87/day and the average wages during the last 7 days was Rs.92 /day. What was his wage on the 8th day?
1. 83
2. 92
3. 90
4. 97 Ans : D
2. The average of 5 quantities is 6. The average of 3 of them is 8. What is the average of the remaining two numbers?
1. 6.5
2. 4
3. 3
4. 3.5
3. The average temperature on Wednesday, Thursday and Friday was 250. The average temperature on Thursday, Friday and Saturday was 240. If the temperature on Saturday was 270, what was the temperature on Wednesday?
1. 240
2. 210
3. 270
4. 300
4. The average age of a group of 12 students is 20years. If 4 more students join the group, the average age increases by 1 year. The average age of the new students is
1. 24
2. 26
3. 23
4. 22
5. When a student weighing 45 kgs left a class, the average weight of the remaining 59 students increased by 200g. What is the average weight of the remaining 59 students?
1. 57 kgs
2. 56.8 kgs
3. 58.2 kgs
4. 52.2 kgs
6. Three math classes: X, Y, and Z, take an algebra test.
The average score in class X is 83.
The average score in class Y is 76.
The average score in class Z is 85.
The average score of all students in classes X and Y together is 79.
The average score of all students in classes Y and Z together is 81.
1. 81
2. 81.5
3. 82
4. 84.5
7. The average weight of a class of 24 students is 36 years. When the weight of the teacher is also included, the average weight increases by 1kg. What is the weight of the teacher?
1. 60 kgs
2. 61 kgs
3. 37 kgs
4. None of these
8. The average of 5 quantities is 10 and the average of 3 of them is 9. What is the average of the remaining 2?
1. 11
2. 12
3. 11.5
4. 12.5
9. The average age of a family of 5 members is 20 years. If the age of the youngest member be 10 years then what was the average age of the family at the time of the birth of the youngest member?
1. 13.5
2. 14
3. 15
4. 12.5
10. A student finds the average of 10 positive integers. Each integer contains two digits. By mistake, the boy interchanges the digits of one number say ba for ab. Due to this, the average becomes 1.8 less than the previous one. What was the difference of the two digits a and b?
1. 8
2. 6
3. 2
4. 4
11. Average cost of 5 apples and 4 mangoes is Rs. 36. The average cost of 7 apples and 8 mangoes is Rs. 48. Find the total cost of 24 apples and 24 mangoes.
1. 1044
2. 2088
3. 720
4. 324
1. Rs. 17.5 lakhs
2. Rs. 21 lakhs
3. Rs. 15 lakhs
4. Rs. 20 lakhs
2. What will Rs.1500 amount to in three years if it is invested in 20% p.a. compound interest, interest being compounded annually?
1. 2400
2. 2592
3. 2678
4. 2540
3. If a sum of money grows to 144/121 times when invested for two years in a scheme where interest is compounded annually, how long will the same sum of money take to treble if invested at the same rate of interest in a scheme where interest is computed using simple interest method?
1. 9 years
2. 22 years
3. 18 years
4. 33 years
4. The population of a town was 3600 three years back. It is 4800 right now. What will be the population three years down the line, if the rate of growth of population has been constant over the years and has been compounding annually?
1. 6000
2. 6400
3. 7200
4. 9600
5. A man invests Rs.5000 for 3 years at 5% p.a. compound interest reckoned yearly. Income tax at the rate of 20% on the interest earned is deducted at the end of each year. Find the amount at the end of the third year.
1. 5624.32
2. 5630.50
3. 5788.125
4. 5627.20
6. The difference between the compound interest and the simple interest on a certain sum at 12% p.a. for two years is Rs.90. What will be the value of the amount at the end of 3 years?
1. 9000
2. 6250
3. 8530.80
4. 8780.80
7. Vijay invested Rs.50,000 partly at 10% and partly at 15%. His total income after a year was Rs.7000. How much did heinvest at the rate of 10%?
1. Rs.40,000
2. Rs.40,000
3. Rs.12,000
4. Rs.20,000
8. A sum of money invested for a certain number of years at 8% p.a. simple interest grows to Rs.180. The same sum of money invested for the same number of years at 4% p.a. simple interest grows to Rs.120 only. For how many years was the sum invested?
1. 25 years
2. 40 years
3. 33 years and 4 months
4. Cannot be determined
9. How long will it take for a sum of money to grow from Rs.1250 to Rs.10,000, if it is invested at 12.5% p.a simple interest?
1. 8 years
2. 64 years
3. 72 years
4. 56 years
10. Rs. 5887 is divided between Shyam and Ram, such that Shyam’s share at the end of 9 years is equal to Ram’s share at the end of 11 years, compounded annually at the rate of 5%. Find the share of Shyam.
1. 2088
2. 2000
3. 3087
4. None of these
1. (6, 0)
2. (6, 3)
3. (0, 6)
4. (3, 6)
2. Find the number of triangles in an octagon.
1. 326
2. 120
3. 56
4. Cannot be determined
3. Find the equation of a line whose intercepts are twice of the line 3x - 2y - 12 = 0
1. 3x - 2y = 24
2. 2x - 3y = 12
3. 2x - 3y = 24
4. None of these
4. Find the area of the sector covered by the hour hand after it has moved through 3 hours and the length of the hour hand is 7cm.
1. 77 sq.cm
2. 38.5 sq.cm
3. 35 sq.cm
4. 70 sq.cm
5. Find the area of the triangle whose vertices are (-6, -2), (-4, -6), (-2, 5).
1. 36
2. 18
3. 15
4. 30
6. A stairway 10ft high is such that each step accounts for half a foot upward and one-foot forward. What distance will an ant travel if it starts from ground level to reach the top of the stairway?
1. 30 ft
2. 33 ft
3. 10 ft
4. 29 ft
7. Each interior angle of a regular polygon is 120 degrees greater than each exterior angle. How many sides are there in the polygon?
1. 6
2. 8
3. 12
4. 3
8. What is the area of the largest triangle that can be fitted into a rectangle of length ‘l’ units and width ‘w’ units?
1. lw/3
2. (2lw)/3
3. (3lw)/4
4. (lw)/2
9. Which of the following is inCorrect?
1. An incentre is a point where the angle bisectors meet.
2. The median of any side of a triangle bisects the side at right angle.
3. The point at which the three altitudes of a triangle meet is the orthocentre
4. The point at which the three perpendicular bisectors meet is the centre of the circumcircle.
10. A and B are two points with the co-ordinates (-2, 0) and (0, 5). What is the length of the diagonal AC if AB form one of the sides of the square ABCD?
1. units
2. units
3. units
4. units
Expected Questions For BANK PO's, CAT, MBA, SSC ,RRB TC , RRB ASM, RRB TRAFFIC APPRENTICE,B.ED.EXAM, UPSC ,PSC EXAM
1. The Indian Economy will grow as per the estimates given by the Asian Development Bank (ADB) at which of the following rates in 2008 ?
(A) 6.7%
(B) 7.5%
(C) 8.5%
(D) 8%
Ans (D)
2. Government has notified the hike in Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) limit for Public Sector Undertakings refineries. The new FDI limit is—
(A) 26%
(B) 49%
(C) 51%
(D) 75%
Ans: (B)
3. As per the report on State of Forest released on February 13, 2008, what is the percentage coverage of forest area in the total geographical area of the country ?
(A) 22.20%
(B) 21.30%
(C) 20.60%
(D) 19.90%
Ans: (C)
4. 13th Finance Commission has been constituted under the Chairmanship of—
(A) Y. S. P. Thorat
(B) Vijai L. Kelkar
(C) T. S. Vijayan
(D) Laxmi Narayan
Ans: (C)
5. SEBI is a—
(A) Statutory body
(B) Advisory body
(C) Constitutional body
(D) Non-statutory body
Ans: (A)
6. 15th SAARC Summit is scheduled to be held in July-August 2008. The changed venue of the summit is—
(A) New Delhi
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) Maldives
(D) Bangladesh
Ans: (B)
7. When was the SAARC established ?
(A) On December 8, 1984
(B) On January 1, 1984
(C) On December 8, 1985
(D) On January 1, 1985
Ans: (C)
8. What is the present number of member countries of European Economic Community ?
(A) 15
(B) 12
(C) 25
(D) 20
Ans: (B)
9. Which Committee recommended abolition of tax rebates under section 88 ?
(A) Chelliah Committee
(B) Kelkar Committee
(C) Shome Committee
(D) None of the above
Ans: (B)
10. Which of the following countries is not the members of European Union ?
(A) Switzerland
(B) Malta
(C) The Czeck Republic
(D) Poland
Ans: (A)
11. Pradhanmantri Bharat Jodo Pariyojna is related to—
(A) Communication
(B) Social Integration
(C) Linking of Rivers
(D) Development of Highways
Ans: (D)
12. ‘Sagarmala’ is a name associated with—
(A) A drilling vessel
(B) A project of port development
(C) Oil well in Indian Ocean
(D) None of the above
Ans: (B)
13. Tarapore Committee submitted its report on “Full Convertibility on Rupee” in—
(A) Current account
(B) Capital account
(C) Both in current as well as in capital account
(D) Special Drawing Rights (SDR)
Ans: (B)
14. The new President of FICCI (Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry) is—
(A) K. C. Raina
(B) V. P. Shetty
(C) Rajiv Chandrashekhar
(D) Som Mittal
Ans: (C)
15. As per Revised Estimates for 2006-07 released by CSO, the growth rate for Indian economy has been estimated to be—
(A) 9.0%
(B) 9.2%
(C) 9.4%
(D) 9.6%
Ans: (D)
16. CENVAT is related to—
(A) Sales Tax
(B) Excise Duty
(C) Custom Duty
(D) Service Tax
Ans: (B)
17. Aam Admi Bima Yojana provides social security to—
(A) All labours in rural areas
(B) All landless labours living below poverty line in rural areas
(C) All labours in urban areas
(D) All labours in both rural as well as urban areas
Ans: (B)
18. According to 2001 census urbanrural population ratio is about—
(A) 35 : 65
(B) 32 : 68
(C) 28 : 72
(D) 25 : 75
Ans: (C)
19. As per the final estimates of Ministry of Agriculture, the rice production for 2006-07 is estimated at—
(A) 80.11 MT
(B) 90.0 MT
(C) 93.4 MT
(D) 101.60 MT
Ans: (C)
20. According to 2001 census the state having highest urban population is—
(A) U.P.
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Kerala
Ans: (B)
21. The growth rate of construction sector for the year 2006-07 has been estimated at the level—
(A) 9.2%
(B) 8.5%
(C) 11.0%
(D) 12.0%
Ans: (D)
22. International Finance Corporation (IFC) has decided to fund an Ultra Mega Power Project in Gujarat. This project belongs to—
(A) Reliance Group
(B) Tata Group
(C) Birla Group
(D) NTPC
Ans: (B)
23. Which states ranks first and last respectively in Education Development Index (EDI) prepared to track the progress of states towards providing universal elementary education ?
(A) Kerala and Orissa respectively
(B) Kerala and Bihar repectively
(C) Andhra Pradesh and Orissa respectively
(D) Karnataka and Bihar respectively
Ans: (B)
24. Targeted power capacity addition for 11th plan period is—
(A) 41110 MW
(B) 66463 MW
(C) 68963 MW
(D) 86283 MW
Ans: (B)
25. During 2006-07 which sector has shown the highest growth rate ?
(A) Service Sector
(B) Manufacturing Sector
(C) Transport and communication
(D) Agriculture Sector
Ans: (C)
26. The Ex-officio Secretary of NDC is—
(A) Secretary of Finance Ministry
(B) General Secretary of Lok Sabha
(C) Secretary of Planning Commission
(D) Vice Chairman of Planning Commission
Ans: (C)
27. 15th SAARC Summit was held in July–August 2008. The venue of the summit was—
(A) New Delhi
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) Maldives
(D) Bangladesh
Ans: (B)
28. In National Mineral Policy (1993) which mineral was allowed for having investment from private sector—
(A) Coal
(B) Iron
(C) Gold
(D) Platinum
Ans: (A)
29. The share of road transport in total transport of the country is–
(A) 20%
(B) 40%
(C) 60%
(D) 80%
Ans: (D)
30. 11th National Conference on e-governance was held on 7–8 February, 2008 at—
(A) Gurgaon (Haryana)
(B) Chandigarh
(C) Mohali (Punjab)
(D) Panchkula (Haryana)
Ans: (D)
31. Which percentage of Central Taxes have been recommended by the 12th Finance Commission to be transferred to States ?
(A) 28.5%
(B) 29.5%
(C) 30.5%
(D) 31.5%
Ans: (C)
32. Which state possesses the maximum percentage of SC population ?
(A) U.P.
(B) M.P.
(C) Kerala
(D) Punjab
Ans: (D)
33. Government has decided to cover all districts of the country in National Rural Employment Guarantee Programme (NREGP)—
(A) Upto January 1, 2008
(B) Upto March 31, 2008
(C) w.e.f April 1, 2008
(D) w.e.f. April 1, 2009
Ans: (B)
34. What is ‘NIKKEI’ ?
(A) Share Price Index of Tokyo Share Market
(B) Name of Japanese Central Bank
(C) Japanese name of Country’s Planning Commission
(D) Foreign Exchange Market of Japan
Ans: (A)
35. Which statement is correct for Indian Planning Commission ?
(A) It is not defined in Indian Constitution
(B) Members and vice-chairman of it do not have fixed working duration
(C) Members do not require any minimum education
(D) All of these
Ans: (D)
36. Which State of the following has adopted VAT (Value Added Tax) w.e.f. January 1, 2007 ?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Gujarat
(D) Goa
Ans: (A)
37. Service Tax revenue collection for 2007–08 (Budget estimates) was proposed at Rs. 50,200 crore but the revised estimates remained at—
(A) Rs. 50,603 crore
(B) Rs. 52,603 crore
(C) Rs. 64,460 crore
(D) Rs. 64,640 crore
Ans: (A)
38. NABARD was established on the recommendation of—
(A) Public Account Committee
(B) Shivaraman Committee
(C) Narsimham Committee
(D) None of these
Ans: (B)
39. Sampurna Gramin Rojgar Yojana has been launched from—
(A) 1st April, 2001
(B) 25th Sept., 2001
(C) 30th Sept., 2001
(D) No scheme of such title has yet launched
Ans: (B)
40. Which company is providing mobile service with name ‘Cell one’ to the consumers ?
(A) MTNL
(B) BSNL
(C) Reliance Infocom
(D) Bharti Tele
Ans: (B)
41. VAT is imposed—
(A) Directly on consumer
(B) On final stage of production
(C) On first stage of production
(D) On all stages between production and final sale
Ans: (D)
42. The newly elevated person as Joint Chairman–cum–Managing Director of National Aviation Company of India Ltd. (NACIL) is—
(A) S. Sridhar
(B) Viswapati Trivedi
(C) Rajiv Chandrashekhar
(D) Venugopal Dhoot
Ans: (B)
43. Kutir Jyoti scheme is associated with—
(A) Promoting cottage industry in villages
(B) Promoting employment among rural unemployed youth
(C) Providing electricity to rural families living below the poverty line
(D) All of these
Ans: (C)
44. Novelis has been acquired and merged with—
(A) Tata Steels
(B) SAIL
(C) HINDALCO
(D) Jindal Steels
Ans: (C)
45. OTCEI is—
(A) Atomic Submarine of China
(B) Economic policy of USA
(C) An Indian Share Market
(D) A defence research organisation
Ans: (C)
46. The New Chairman of SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) is—
(A) M. Damodaran
(B) C. B. Bhave
(C) Venugopal Dhoot
(D) Sunil K. Munjal
Ans: (B)
47. Gross Budgetary Support (GBS) for 2008–09 as per document of 11th plan stands at Rs. 2,28,725 crore but in budget proposals for 2008–09 it has been raised to—
(A) Rs. 2,23,386 crore
(B) Rs. 2,43,386 crore
(C) Rs. 2,63,386 crore
(D) Rs. 28,456 crore
Ans: (B)
48. The base of Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers is being shifted from 1982 to—
(A) 1995
(B) 1998
(C) 2000
(D) 2001
Ans: (D)
49. In Budget proposals for 2008–09, which of the following gives 24% contribution in revenue collection of union government ?
(A) Income Tax
(B) Excise
(C) Corporation Tax
(D) Non-tax Revenue
Ans: (C)
50. The base year of present Consumer Price Index (CPI) for Urban Non-Manual Employees (CPI—UNME) is—
(A) 1980-81
(B) 1981-81
(C) 1982-83
(D) 1984-85
Ans: (D)
51. CAPART is related with—
(A) Assisting and evaluating rural welfare programmes
(B) Computer hardware
(C) Consultant service of export promotion
(D) Controlling pollution in big industries
Ans: (A)
52. Note issuing deptt. of RBI should always possess the minimum gold stock of worth—
(A) Rs. 85 crore
(B) Rs. 115 crore
(C) Rs. 200 crore
(D) None of these
Ans: (B)
53. Which of the following does not grant any tax rebate ?
(A) National Saving Certificate
(B) Indira Vikas Patra
(C) National Saving Scheme
(D) Public Providend Fund
Ans: (B)
54. Ad hoc Treasury Bill System of meeting budget deficit in India was abolished on—
(A) 31 March, 1997
(B) 31 March, 1996
(C) 1 April, 1992
(D) 1 April, 1995
Ans: (A)
55. SEBI was established in—
(A) 1993
(B) 1992
(C) 1988
(D) 1990
Ans: (C)
56. The working of SEBI includes—
(A) To regulate the dealings of share market
(B) To check the foul dealings in share market
(C) To control the inside trading of shares
(D) All of these
Ans: (D)
57. The “Ad hoc Treasury Bill System” of meeting budget deficit in India was replaced by ‘Ways and Means Advances System’ which has come into force on—
(A) March 31, 1997
(B) April 1, 1996
(C) April 1, 1997
(D) None of these
Ans: (C)
58. Fiscal deficit as a percentage of GDP was 4•0% in 2004–05 which sliped down in 2008–09 (Budget Estimates) to—
(A) 3.2%
(B) 2.8%
(C) 2.5%
(D) 2.1%
Ans: (C)
59. According to the Economic Survey 2007–08 during the period April 3, 2007 and February 6, 2008 Indian rupee appreciated against US dollar by—
(A) 5.6%
(B) 6.8%
(C) 8.9%
(D) 9.3%
Ans: (C)
60. Which statement of the following is true for IMF ?
(A) It is not an agency of UNO
(B) It can grant loan to any country of the world
(C) It can grant loan to state Govt. of a country
(D) It grants loan only to member nations
Ans: (D)
61. For 2006-07, agriculture growth rate has been estimated at—
(A) 3.8%
(B) 5.9%
(C) 0.0%
(D) 6.3%
Ans: (A)
62. Which of the following is public sector organisation ?
(1) FCI Food Corporation of India
(2) FCI Fertilizer Corporation of India
(3) Cotton Corporation of India
(4) Jute Corporation of India
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2, 3
(C) Only 3, 4
(D) All of these
Ans: (D)
63. Which day has been declared as ‘Balika Diwas’ (Girl Day) by the Ministry of Woman and Children Development ?
(A) April 5, every year
(B) July 9, every year
(C) October 9, every year
(D) December 9, every year
Ans: (D)
64. For RIDF-XIII, allocation in Union Budget 2006-07 was—
(A) Rs. 4500 crore
(B) Rs. 5500 crore
(C) Rs. 10000 crore
(D) Rs. 12000 crore
Ans: (D)
65. The birth rate and death rate for the year 2006 have been estimated as—
(A) 26.2 and 8.1 per thousand respectively
(B) 24.8 and 8.0 per thousand respectively
(C) 23.8 and 7.6 per thousand respectively
(D) 23.5 and 7.5 per thousand respectively
Ans: (D)
66. Central Issue price of foodgrains under TPDS includes price for BPL and APL (below poverty line and above poverty line). What is the difference between the two ?
(A) Price for APL is double of BPL price
(B) Price for BPL is one-third of APL price
(C) Difference of Rs. 500 per Qt.
(D) Difference of Rs. 250 per Qt.
Ans: (A)
67. What growth target government has estimated for the domestic crude production for the 11th Plan (2007–12) ?
(A) 42%
(B) 33%
(C) 29%
(D) 26%
Ans: (D)
68. Rural women can avail the benefit of Mahila Samriddhi Yojana if they open their account in—
(A) Rural Post Offices
(B) Commercial Banks
(C) Rural Development Bank
(D) Any of the above
Ans: (A)
69. Agriculture sector registered 6% growth in 2005-06 and it is estimated for year 2007-08 at—
(A) Again 6%
(B) 4.3%
(C) 3.3%
(D) 2.6%
Ans: (D)
70. As per the second advanced estimates of Agricultural Production for the year 2007-08 released by the Ministry of Agriculture, Kharif production has been estimated at—
(A) 110.52 Million Tonnes
(B) 112.24 Million Tonnes
(C) 114.42 Million Tonnes
(D) 115.9 Million Tonnes
Ans: (D)
71. Mistry Committee in its final report recommends full capital account convertibility by—
(A) 2008 end
(B) 2009 end
(C) 2010 end
(D) 2011 end
Ans: (A)
72. Which committee recommended tax on Agriculture Holdings ?
(A) Bhootlingam Committee
(B) Wanchoo Committee
(C) Raj Committee
(D) None of these
Ans: (d)
73. The Present Service Tax rate as proposed in Union Budget 2008-09 is—
(A) 8%
(B) 9%
(C) 10%
(D) 12%
Ans: (D)
74. The cause of deflation is—
(A) Lack of goods and services as compared to money supply
(B) Lack of imports as compared to exports
(C) Lack of money supply as compared to supply of goods and services
(D) None of these
Ans: (C)
75. Which of the following is a better measure of economic development ?
(A) Employment
(B) Size of exports
(C) Rural consumption
(D) National Income
Ans: (D)
76. Which bank in India performs duties of Central Bank ?
(A) Central Bank of India
(B) State Bank of India
(C) Reserve Bank of India
(D) Above (A) and (B)
Ans: (C)
77. Out of one Rupee expenditure, how much paise have been allotted for subsidy in 2008-09 budget proposals?
(A) 12 Paise
(B) 10 Paise
(C) 8 Paise
(D) 7 Paise
Ans: (C)
8. ‘India Brand Equity Fund’ was established in—
(A) 1996
(B) 1997
(C) 1995
(D) 1992
Ans: (A)
79. Mixed Economy means—
(A) Co-existence of small and large industries
(B) Promoting both Agriculture and Industries in the economy
(C) Co-existence of public and private sectors
(D) Co-existence of rich and poor
Ans: (C)
80. Ministry of HRD has announced to hike FDI limit in Education to—
(A) 65%
(B) 70%
(C) 75%
(D) 100%
Ans: (D)
81. “Pure Banking, Nothing Else” is a slogan raised by—
(A) ICICI Bank
(B) HDFC Bank
(C) SBI
(D) UTI Bank
Ans: (C)
82. During 2006-07, External debt to GDP ratio in India stood at—
(A) 16.4%
(B) 17.4%
(C) 17.8%
(D) 15.8%
Ans: (A)
83. Indian State having the lowest Infant Mortality Rate is—
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Goa
(C) Gujarat
(D) Kerala
Ans: (D)
84. ‘Smart Money’ is a term used for—
(A) Internet Banking
(B) Credit Card
(C) Cash with Bank
(D) Cash with Public
Ans: (B)
85. Which of the following has the maximum share in GSM Mobile Phone Service Market ?
(A) Vodafone (earlier Hutch)
(B) Airtel
(C) BSNL
(D) Reliance
Ans: (B)
86. The main objective of TRYSEM was—
(A) To train rural youth for self employment
(B) To train urban youth for self employment
(C) Both of the above
(D) None of these
Ans: (A)
87. The establishment of IORARC (Indian Ocean Rim Association for Regional Co-operation) was officially declared on—
(A) March 5, 1996
(B) March 5, 1997
(C) April 1, 1997
(D) August 15, 1947
Ans: (B)
88. Inside Trading is related to—
(A) Share Market
(B) Horse racing
(C) Taxation
(D) Public Expenditure
Ans: (A)
89. The largest source of National Income in India is—
(A) Service Sector
(B) Agriculture
(C) Industrial Sector
(D) Trade Sector
Ans: (A)
90. ‘Public Sector’ means—
(A) Government ownership on commerce and trade
(B) Capitalist ownership on commerce and trade
(C) Private ownership on trade
(D) None of these
Ans: (A)
91. NABARD is—
(A) A bank
(B) A board
(C) A block
(D) A department
Ans: (A)
92. Indian Green Revolution is the most successful in—
(A) Wheat and Potato
(B) Jwar and Oil Seeds
(C) Wheat and Rice
(D) Tea and Coffee
Ans: (C)
93. The period of 10th plan in India was—
(A) 2000-2005
(B) 2001-2006
(C) 2002-2007
(D) 2003-2008
Ans: (C)
94. Economic Planning is in—
(A) Union list
(B) State list
(C) Concurrent list
(D) Not any specified list
Ans: (C)
95. Presently (from April 29, 2003) bank rate in India is—
(A) 7.0%
(B) 6.75%
(C) 6.25%
(D) 6.0%
Ans: (D)
96. Gross domestic savings as a proportion of GDP has been improving. What is the average percentage of gross domestic savings during the 10th plan ?
(A) 26.4%
(B) 31.4%
(C) 34.8%
(D) 35.2%
Ans: (B)
97. 12th Finance Commission has recommended to merge and determine one single interest rate on various outstanding central loans to states having different interest rates. What is this recommended interest rate ?
(A) 7.0%
(B) 7.5%
(C) 8.0%
(D) 8.5%
Ans: (B)
98. MRTP is related to—
(A) Monopoly and trade restrictions
(B) Inflation control
(C) Transport control
(D) Foreign Exchange Regulations
Ans: (A)
99. Interest Rate Policy is a part of—
(A) Fiscal Policy
(B) Industrial Policy
(C) Monetary Policy
(D) None of these
Ans: (C)
100. The basis of determining dearness allowance to employees in India is—
(A) National Income
(B) Consumer Price Index
(C) Standard of Living
(D) Per Capita Income
Ans: (B)
101. Which one of the following persons occupies the top rank in Forbes’ list of World’s richest people ?
(A) Bill Gates
(B) Warren Buffett
(C) Carlos Slim Heln
(D) Laxmi Mittal
Ans: (B)
COMPUTER GENERAL KNOWLEDGE QUIZ
CURRRENT GK QUIZ
OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS 10
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